“I have been to England” and “I have been in England”

Hello everyone!
Somebody could help me with a doubt that I have?
I can’t understand what is different between “I have been to England” and “I have been in England”.

Thank you in advance.
PM Sep 5, 2008

3 comments


Sep 5, 2008 PM
Another one is about the difference between "it's difficult to me" and "it's difficult for me".

Thank you in advance.
Sep 7, 2008 Ananat
Hello,

For the first sentences, I don't think there is really a difference. Maybe the connotation could be different - "I have been to England" makes it seem like you visited, for fun or for work; but "I have been in England" might make it seem like you've passed through it without really doing anything. If there really is a difference, I don't think it's a very big one.

The second pair of sentences are different, I think. "It's difficult to me" makes it sound as if you're saying, "It seems difficult". So maybe it's just an observation about something you haven't done. But "It's difficult for me" is a statement of a fact, so you would use it in regards to an activity or something that you've personally had experience with.

I hope that helps!
Sep 30, 2008 PM
Ananat,

I thought nobody would answer my question.
Your explanation was very clear for me.

Thank you so much!