“I have been to England” and “I have been in England”

Hello everyone!
Somebody could help me with a doubt that I have?
I can’t understand what is different between “I have been to England” and “I have been in England”.

Thank you in advance.
Iwas-lans Sep 5, 2008


Sep 5, 2008 Iwas-lans
Another one is about the difference between "it's difficult to me" and "it's difficult for me".

Thank you in advance.
Sep 7, 2008 Ananat

For the first sentences, I don't think there is really a difference. Maybe the connotation could be different - "I have been to England" makes it seem like you visited, for fun or for work; but "I have been in England" might make it seem like you've passed through it without really doing anything. If there really is a difference, I don't think it's a very big one.

The second pair of sentences are different, I think. "It's difficult to me" makes it sound as if you're saying, "It seems difficult". So maybe it's just an observation about something you haven't done. But "It's difficult for me" is a statement of a fact, so you would use it in regards to an activity or something that you've personally had experience with.

I hope that helps!
Sep 30, 2008 Iwas-lans

I thought nobody would answer my question.
Your explanation was very clear for me.

Thank you so much!